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| | #1 (permalink) |
| Mycotopiate Join Date: Aug 1972
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![]() | general Archive through December 03, 2004
EZEKIEL chapter 4:9 take thou also unto thee wheat band barley and beans and lentiles and millet and fitches and put them in one vessel and make thee bread thereof, ... etc :10 and thy meat which thou shalt eat shall be by weight, twenty shekels a day : from time to time shalt thou eat it. :15 then he said unto me, lo, i have given thee cow's dung for mans dung, and thou shalt prepare thy bread therewith. what do you think? by the way EZEKIEL was HEAVEY on the visions... really heavy. |
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| | #3 (permalink) |
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<blockquote><hr size=0><!-quote-!><font size=1>quote:</font> then he said unto me, lo, i have given thee cow's dung for mans dung, and thou shalt prepare thy bread therewith. <!-/quote-!><hr size=0></blockquote> they burned the dung to cook on as there's virtually no wood in palestine. not a pf formula |
| | #4 (permalink) |
| Mycotopiate Join Date: May 1972
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lol. People, (not saying you did) find alot to read into the Bible. My X found a verse, something about take strong drink and make merry. It was his way to say its ok to continue his alcoholism. Still pisses me off. But, the dung, IS funny you found that! (Message edited by chnop35 on October 12, 2004)
__________________ ...keep your feet on the ground :) |
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| | #5 (permalink) |
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in that episode ezekiel was complaining to god as god had ordered him to cook using his own dung, which was unclean. so after hearing the complaint god allowed ezekiel to cook on cow dung instead. gotta know the context to understand the bible, just lifting verses will lead one astray damn fast. (Message edited by admin on October 12, 2004) |
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<blockquote><hr size=0><!-quote-!><font size=1>quote:</font> just lifting verses will lead one astray damn fast. <!-/quote-!><hr size=0></blockquote> That's why there's thousands of christian churches. They all have their 'pet verse' they've lifted out of context to justify their particular creed. |
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yeah, lots of 'doctrine' is based on very poor foundations. for example, the entire dogma about the 'virgin' mary, mother of jesus. that's all based on a mis-translation of the hebrew word for a young girl not yet married, who were assumed to be virginal. mary was pregnant, but no one yet knew, and still un-married at the time so the hebrew word was used which later translaters interpreted to mean a literal virgin although nowhere was that made explicit in the bible. and now we have whole cults worshipping the Virgin and catholics have elevated her to near god-like status as the 'mother of god'. a ploy to attract the pagans who had many prominent female deities. by all rights, under hebrew law, she would have been stoned to death for getting pregnant outside of wedlock. instead she is worshipped. (Message edited by admin on October 12, 2004) |
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You completely mis interpited my post just like the bible verse like many others do......I may have been taking about a garden instrument. Words can be interptied many diffrent ways when taken outta context like "Virgin" Hip, said Pregnant outta wedlock..............what is the diffrence? That is my belief. |
| | #13 (permalink) |
| Mycophage Join Date: Jun 1971
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The Hebrew word, "alma" can mean virgin or young unmarried women. Usually "b'tula" is used to denote virgin. I could only find three instances where "alma" was used in the OT; each time, it was associated with a redeemer figure; Ex 2:8, it is translated as "maid" to describe Pharoah's daughter who raised Moses(a redeemer figure), alma is also translated as "virgin" in Gen 24:43, when referring to Rebecca, "Behold, I will stand by the well of water and it shall come to pass that when the virgin(alma) comes out to draw water..." The third instance is in Is 7:14, "Behold, a virgin shall conceive..." In the Septuagint, the Greek translation of the Hebrew bible, written 150 B.C., a Greek word is used in place of alma that specifically means virgin. |
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| | #14 (permalink) |
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Yes Morella, the term "alma" means something more like the old usage of the word maid or maiden. Like Maid Marian. Sort of like Miss vs Mrs, but not quit. Language is such a hindrance in the way we understand these ancient texts. The writings atribuited to Paul are a fine example of this. There are so many Greek works that have been completely mistranslated, because there is no real word for word translation. The same goes for Hebrew. The OT we have was translated to Greek then to English. The Greek concept of a "virgin" was different that of the Hebrews. There was nothing "holy" about being a virgin to the Hebrews and it was considered to be a condition that was undesirable as soon as a female was over the age of 12. She was better married off. I wish I had the time to learn more languages. I know some Greek, but not enough to read the NT in its original language. So much meaning is lost. The same goes with Hebrew, Sanskrit, Pali etc... There are refrences to Ganga in the OT. One can be certain that they used it, as well as Opium. I forget the exact verses, I believe they where in relation to David or Solomon. It is clear that these guys knew how to party.. Rue, Opium, and Ganja where well known to people all around the Hebrews at the time, its a sure thing they would have used it also. There are no direct "laws" in the OT that forbid the use of intoxicants, so I am sure that if they had it they would have used it. As far as the mushroom goes thats anyones guess. If you want to check out some speculation on this get a copy of "Food of the Gods" by McKenna. You can work backwards from his research by getting your hands on the works he lists in the Bibliography. (Message edited by dr_hyde on October 12, 2004) |
| | #15 (permalink) |
| Mycophage Join Date: Jun 1971
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The Dead Sea Scrolls were written mostly in Hebrew (a few in Aramaic) and they all support the Septuaguint. We also have a Hebrew copy of the bible, the Ben Asher. The Strong's Hebrew/Greek dictionary can be read online. On page 1357, #226, they give the definition of the the word "sign" as in Is 7:14, "The Lord Himself will give you a sign: Behold, a virgin shall conceive.." This word is used in connection with miracles: "sign, mark, symbol, signal or event that communicates a supernatural event or miracle as a sign from God". An unmarried woman getting pregnant out of wedlock wouldn't be considered a supernatural event. |
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| | #16 (permalink) |
| Mycotopiate Join Date: Aug 1972
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whoa whoa whoa, i leave this thread for 12 hours and look at what happens. sheesh. i just thought it was funny. but seriously hip whats your take on the whole mana theory? you seem well scriptured id like to hear your opinion of that whole "what is it" buisness. |
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| | #17 (permalink) |
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"The Strong's Hebrew/Greek dictionary can be read online. On page 1357, #226, they give the definition of the the word "sign" as in Is 7:14, "The Lord Himself will give you a sign: Behold, a virgin shall conceive.." This word is used in connection with miracles: "sign, mark, symbol, signal or event that communicates a supernatural event or miracle as a sign from God". An unmarried woman getting pregnant out of wedlock wouldn't be considered a supernatural event." The translation is wrong. The word in question is virgin. The Hebrew word used is "ha'almah" which means "maiden" or young unmarried woman. If they ment virgin as meaninge a woman who had never had sex they would have used the word "betulah". This is from a modern Hebrew bible. The scrolls where used in its translation to english. To make things even more messed up when the OT was translated from Greek into english the Greek word "parthenos" was translated inconsistantly as either virgin or maid. ie. Gen 24:43 it is rendered the virgin, while at Gen 38:24 it is rendered the maid. I do not believe this was ment to refer to jesus when I read the verse in context with the chapter. The following questions come to my mind: At what age did baby Jesus mature? Which two kingdoms were abandoned during Jesus’ lifetime? Who dreaded the Kingdom of Israel during the first century C.E., when there had not been a Kingdom of Israel in existence since the eighth century B.C.E.? Where is the account of Jesus eating cream and honey recorded? What about the implication that Jesus sinned up to a certain age? Again, much can be lost in translation. (Message edited by dr_hyde on October 13, 2004) |
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<blockquote><hr size=0><!-quote-!><font size=1>quote:</font> An unmarried woman getting pregnant out of wedlock wouldn't be considered a supernatural event.<!-/quote-!><hr size=0></blockquote> true but you're assuming it's the pregnancy that's the sign which is not explicit in the scripture the sign could, for example, have been the 'star' that led the Magi |
| | #20 (permalink) |
| Mycophage Join Date: Jun 1971
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Hippie, Isaiah seems to be saying in 7:14 that the pregnancy is the sign. The Septuagint was translated in 250 B.C. by Jewish scribes who had no political motives for translating alma as "virgin". TehhutiRoo, you argue that "alma" cannot mean virgin because another word, "b'tula", is used more often. According to Strong's dictionary, B'tula is used 24 times for virgin and 24 times for virgins. If we follow this logic, then "alma" cannot mean young women because another word, na ra, is used more frequently. According to Strong's, pg 1426, "na ra" is used to describe a young women over 62 times! Alma is not the common word for young woman, infact, it is not common at all, appearing only 6 times in the OT: Ex 2:8, Phraoh's daughter is called "alma"(maid), she being the woman who raises Moses, a redeemer figure. "Alma" is used in reference to Rebecca, the woman who becomes the bride of Isaac, the "promised one"(Gen 24:43). It occurs twice in the Song of Solomon, 1:3 and 6:8, to describe a wedding procession(symbolic of the bride of Christ) which includes virgins. The word is also used in connection with a wedding procession in Ps 68:25. You also asked about Is 7:15,16, "Curds and honey He shall eat, that He may know to refuse the evil and choose the good. For before the Child shall know to refuse the evil and choose the good, the land that you dread will be forsaken by both kings" Curds and honey represent Judea's simple diet after the Assyrian invasion(see vs 21-22). The child refers to the messiah and to Isaiah's's son in ch 8:4, "Call his name Maher-Shalal-Hash-Baz; for before the child shall have knowledge to cry 'My father' and 'My mother', the riches of Damascus and the spoil of Samaria will be taken by the king of Assyria." This was fulfilled in 722 B.C. IMHO, the prophecy concerning the Messianic Child will be fulfilled with the second coming(see Is 9) with the King of Assyria representing Satan or the antichrist (see Is 10:5). Endtime Assyria is mentioned in Is 14:24, "And as I proposed, so it will stand; That I will break the Assyian in My land, And on my mountains tread them underfoot. Then his yoke shall be removed from them, And his burden removed from their shoulders. This is the purpose that is purposed against the whole earth.." (Message edited by morella on October 13, 2004) (Message edited by morella on October 13, 2004) |
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| | #21 (permalink) |
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<blockquote><hr size=0><!-quote-!><font size=1>quote:</font> The Septuagint <!-/quote-!><hr size=0></blockquote> but as any scholar knows the scriptures were written, not in greek, but in hebrew and aramaic. so i am reluctant to accept the septuagint as the authoritative text since it's a rather poor translation any scholar could do a better job today |
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<blockquote><hr size=0><!-quote-!><font size=1>quote:</font> Hippie, Isaiah seems to be saying in 7:14 that the pregnancy is the sign.<!-/quote-!><hr size=0></blockquote> that's your interpretation, the pregnancy Isaiah was foretelling was fulfilled in his own days long before the time of jesus and it was not a 'virgin' birth. i know you believe in prophetic foreshadowing but logically one can not argue that Isaiah meant the messiah with any degree of certainty. only long afterwards were the scriptures sifted thru to look for anything that might help bolster the case for jesus' claim to be the messiah. anything that seemed to fit like references to nazareth, virgins, etc. were immediately seized upon and used in their argument even when it required a bit of twisting and literary license to make it fit. such is the case here, the word does not literally mean virgin, that's just one possible implication it may or may not have been true depending on each particular case. but one can easily see the motive behind early Xian insistance on a virginal conception, because otherwise mary would have been dishonored, and so too jesus himself. sex was still considered ceremonially 'unclean' and so they could not bring themselves to contemplate such an ordinary beginning for their long anticipated messiah. but we know better, jesus was male and so mary could not have undergone some kind of invitro fertilization as a male is required to provide the Y chromosome need to create another male, it cannot come from the mother. jesus must have therefore had a human father. and really, scripture is perfectly reconcilable with that, no need for any virgin birth for jesus to be what he claimed. the virgin mythos is just a throw-back to the days of the great pagan goddess cults. the Xians in their zeal to expand and include more converts saw the political necessity to give the pagans a female deity to worship so they gave them Mary as a substitute for Ishtar. (Message edited by admin on October 13, 2004) |
| | #23 (permalink) |
| Mushroom Geek Join Date: Jun 1972
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And when the dew that lay was gone up, behold, upon the face of the wilderness there lay a small round thing, as small as the hoar frost on the ground 6:14 Found this interesting from Peeles FMRC website Not sure what passage its from In OT.
__________________ Death Before Dishonor |
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| | #26 (permalink) |
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<blockquote><hr size=0><!-quote-!><font size=1>quote:</font> hip whats your take on the whole mana theory? <!-/quote-!><hr size=0></blockquote> i damn sure do not believe that magic mushrooms grew in the sinai deserts what the biblical manna actually was i can't really speculate but there is absolutely no scriptural evidence that the manna was in any way psychedelic. |
| | #28 (permalink) |
| Mycotopiate Join Date: Dec 1972
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EXODUS 16:31-33, 31:And the house of Israel called the name thereof Manna: and it was like coriander seed, white: and the taste of it was like wafers made with honey. "(we all know mushrooms do not taste anything like honey! But personally, I like the taste of Mushrooms)" 32: And Moses said, This is the thing which the Lord commandeth, Fill an omer of it to be kept for your generations: that they may see the bread wherewith I have fed you in the wilderness, when I brought you fourth from the land of Egypt. 33: And Moses said unto Aaron, Take a pot, and put an omer full of manna therein, and lay it up before the Lord, to be kept for your generations. I know that good old fashioned bread can sustain a body for quit a while, but I don't think Mushrooms could. |
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| | #29 (permalink) |
| Mycophage Join Date: Jun 1971
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![]() | quote:"I know you believe in prophetic foreshadowing but logically, one cannot argue that Isaiah meant the messiah with any degree of certainty." Isaiah 7:14 cannot be referring to the child born to Isaiah's wife- The child in Is 7:14 is born of "alma". Alma is a term that is never applied to a married woman. I believe that prophecies have an immediate fulfillment and a future fulfillment. They also contain parallelism revealing poetic truth, for example, Egypt, Babylon, and Zion can also be spiritual places. The King of Assyria in Isaiah can also be looked at metaphorically, as one who takes men captive, urging each one to forsake the living fountain and instead, "...drink the waters of his own cistern". He offers a substitute for Israel, "I come to take you to a land like your own land"(Is 36:16). Why did Isaiah choose the word "alma" instead of Bethulah? Well, Isaiah would later address Jewish exiles from Babylon. The Babylonian goddess, Sumiranis, was also known as "Alma Mater" which translates "Virgin Mother". IMO, by using the word alma, Isaiah was able to convey that the "Alma" had yet to give birth to the deliverer, therefore the previous saviors were false. Among the ancients, the word "betulah" was also used to describe a woman who was under her father's authority yet not a virgin. It is obvious that the Canaanite goddess, Anath, was not a virgin yet on her epithet found in Ugar, she was called "betulah". I did a post on her in another thread once. quote:"Only long afterwards were the scriptures sifted through to look for anything that might bolster the case for Jesus' claim to be the messiah". To the contrary, the Septuagint was held in high regard until the Christians started quoting from it. Justin Martyr, in Against Heresies, accused the Jews of removing messianic passages that could be found in the Septuagint. Likewise, Irenaeus claimed that the newer translations were biased against Christians (Is 7:14 was changed) and that the Septuagint was unbiased because it was translated before the advent of Christ.(Book 3 ch XXl Ante Nicean Fathers), quote:"The virgin mythos is just a throw-back to the days of the great pagan goddess cults. The Xians in their zeal to expand and include more converts saw the political necessity to gve the pagans a female deity to worship so they gave them Mary as a substitute for Istar." The glorification of Mary did not occur until centuries later and the early church was not concerned with appeasing pagans. In Ephesus, Paul was almost torn apart by a mob when he offended devotees of the goddess Diana (Acts 19:24). Actually goddess worship originated in Babylon, after the death of Nimrod. His widow, Simiramis, gave birth to a son and proclaimed him to be the "promised seed" of Gen 3:15 who would crush the serpent's head, his heel being bruised. The deliverer became known as Zoroaster, seed of the woman; "Zero" is Babylonian for seed, "aster" means woman. The woman who bore the promised seed was also worshipped as Ashta or Isa. In other nations she was known as Astarte, Ishtar, Isis, Venus, Aphrodite etc. Asht-tarte, meaning one who builds towers, identifies her with Nimrod's wife in Babylon. Rhea was called the "towerbearing goddess" and one of Diana's titles was "towermaker". The ancients also understood the bruise to the heel in Gen 3:15 to mean death for the Promised Seed, hence the mythology of dying and rising gods among pagan nations. |
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| | #30 (permalink) |
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<blockquote><hr size=0><!-quote-!><font size=1>quote:</font> I believe that prophecies have an immediate fulfillment and a future fulfillment. They also contain parallelism revealing poetic truth, for example, Egypt, Babylon, and Zion can also be spiritual places. The King of Assyria in Isaiah can also be looked at metaphorically...<!-/quote-!><hr size=0></blockquote> indeed and that makes it real easy to argue for just about any point you care to 'prove' which is at the center of this problem. any trivial biblical story can be 'interpreted' and applied in a totally different context that it originally did, as in this case where isaih's prophecy WAS fulfilled in his own day and the birth was not from a virgin even though the same word that later refers to Mary was used. of course the fellow who later wrote the account about Mary knew of isaiah's words and so could easily have used that word in a deliberate attempt to link jesus to the words spoken earlier by isaiah, making it a sort of self-fulfilling prophecy. (Message edited by admin on October 16, 2004) |
| | #31 (permalink) |
| Mycophiliac Join Date: Nov 1972
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Hi, Here is a link on mushrooms and religion that I found to be interesting: www.pharmacraticinquisition.com Also, I was adopted and didn't know that my father was of Hebrew descent until just recently, so naturally I was curious about my heritage. My mother was of Native American heritage, so that is a strange mix! I read "The Glassmakers" and "The Eighth Day" by Samuel Kurinsky. He is a Hebrew history scholar. Also, I did a lot of investigation at hebrewhistory.org among several other sites. The Semitic Glassmakers (Abraham as the first Jew) who came from Ur, brought with him the pyrotechnology to vitrify glass. Later, the Jews sold and traded ingots of glass to such people as the Venetians, who remelted and worked the glass. The secret of the creation of glass from scratch was kept for over 5000 years by the Jewish glassmakers. Abraham settled in Galilee. The sand at the Sea of Galilee was perfect for glass and there was plenty of forest. The Hebrews had to burn tremendous amounts of wood to make glass. The temperatures have to be higher than for melting ores. Other areas that were settled that are now desert were once forested. There may be a connection between mana and mushrooms. Kurinsky dispells the myth of Jewish nomads. The wood of choice for the kilns was oak. Recently, I read how Moses instructed the people how to preserve the mana in honey, after drying and grinding into flour, for preservation for their descendents. The descriptions of how the mana "melted" or got slimey, unless dried, also fits with mushrooms. Some of that info may be at www.bluehoney.org, or linked from that site. She has a zillion links. Wherever the glassmakers went they burned up the forests for their kilns. Forests always have mushrooms. It is unfortunate that wherever the Hebrew glassmakers went, these forests were decimated. In Europe, after they were invited to come to make glass for the nobles, they were asked to leave because of the destruction of the ancient forests. Kurinsky's books are fascinating and filled with evidence from other disciplines such as archeological and anthropological info, because he was trying, and succeeded, in demonstrating that much of the Old Testament is indeed historical. Most university libraries will have a copy of "The Glassmakers." The www.pharmacraticinquisition.com movie goes into the mana/mushroom theory quite a bit. They do not seem to be familiar, however, with the Hebrew glassmakers connection to the forests dating back to the first Jew, Abraham. Since I had read "The Glassmakers," I could see, even more, the veracity of the theories they were presenting about the Jews and mushrooms. It is a lecture given at a university at Arlington, TX and has some fabulous art in the movie, a lot of it quite ancient. They also have a link to Real alternative, which plays the movie nicely without having to load the invasive Real Player on one's machine if you don't already have it. I didn't watch it at the site, I downloaded it and watched it on Real alternative. |
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| | #32 (permalink) |
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Hey everyone, check this site out! It has different psychadelic videos and art. Make sure your speakers are on. It probably requires flash or shockwave or something like that. I got lost in it for a while. Have fun! http://www.larrycarlson.com/ |
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i have tripped before on cid, this is why im here i have quit puffing right now, as i write this the meds im on are killing me, im willing to do my own but i know nothing about just what i have been reading.these HA make you cry like a baby as i am now. i love life, i have chronic condition for what its worth i do need a new hobby.people swear this works. the prednisone i have taken in my life is the worst thing. i do thank everyone for your help because at this point im helpless i went to Amsterdam 2002 coffee shops were great the smell too. its a smell i never will forget. but i didnt take advantage of the full spectrum i just need all the help i can get. seems there are good people here. hope is possible please dont shun me away THANKS BB |
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| "seems there are good people here. hope is possible please dont shun me away" hehe...don't worry! Welcome! Everything you need to know is all here, start with the Archives " i do need a new hobby" Well, you've picked a very rewarding one, especially considering your condition. From what I've read, it doesn't take a full-on Psychedelic dose of shrooms to alleviate your symptoms. It may also be valuable for you to find out about what it takes to get off the meds before you start with the shrooms. |
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<blockquote><hr size=0><!-quote-!><font size=1>quote:</font> dont need but a small dose <!-/quote-!><hr size=0></blockquote> i hope you are not attempting to discretely solicit here. i couldn't help but notice a subtle underlying theme as i read this thread. i hope i'm wrong. |
| | #47 (permalink) |
| Mycophiliac Join Date: Sep 1972
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<blockquote><hr size=0><!-quote-!><font size=1>quote:</font> The Semitic Glassmakers (Abraham as the first Jew) who came from Ur, brought with him the pyrotechnology to vitrify glass. Later, the Jews sold and traded ingots of glass to such people as the Venetians, who remelted and worked the glass. The secret of the creation of glass from scratch was kept for over 5000 years by the Jewish glassmakers. Abraham settled in Galilee. The sand at the Sea of Galilee was perfect for glass and there was plenty of forest. The Hebrews had to burn tremendous amounts of wood to make glass. The temperatures have to be higher than for melting ores. Other areas that were settled that are now desert were once forested. There may be a connection between mana and mushrooms. Kurinsky dispells the myth of Jewish nomads. The wood of choice for the kilns was oak. <!-/quote-!><hr size=0></blockquote> Thanks for the plug on our video. We'll check into "The Glassmakers". Just so you know, bluehoney.org is us too... or rather Andy's site. As for Abraham, this is just a word play on the Hindu Brahma. AB means father. Father Brahman. Abraham was not a real Jewish character, but an anthropomorphism of much more ancient Hindu text to which middle eastern philosophy was based. A good book on this subject is by David L. Spess, former mycologist for the FDA, and author of Soma - The Divine Hallucinogen. We will also be releasing some work on the history of these characters in our second book. Thanks again, Jan Irvin http://www.pharmacratic-inquisition.com (Message edited by TheHemperor on October 21, 2004) |
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<blockquote><hr size=0><!-quote-!><font size=1>quote:</font> Abraham was not a real Jewish character, but an anthropomorphism of much more ancient Hindu text to which middle eastern philosophy was based. <!-/quote-!><hr size=0></blockquote> got any proof for your assertion ? |
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<blockquote><hr size=0><!-quote-!><font size=1>quote:</font> I just cannot understand how that actually helps. If I tripped with a massive headache my "set and setting" would be jacked... <!-/quote-!><hr size=0></blockquote> The dose of mushrooms needed to effect pain relief from cluster cycles is a mere fraction of a "recreational" dose. People report relief from as little as .25-.5 gram doses of mushrooms. Doses too high can actually trigger a cluster cycle. It is thought that these 5HT modulators are somehow able to reset the vascular tone of facial vessels, causing a reduction of pressure on the facial nerves. Since the facial vessels and nerves are fasciculated, a change in vessel diameter has direct consequences for the pressure applied to the adjoining nerves. Our current biological understanding of these phenomena is very limited. While there are clinical trials of LSD and psilocybin treatment of cluster headache in the pipeline, I know of no published work on the fundamental mechanisms involved. I hope to incorporate some of this into an R01 I will be submitting in a year or two. |
| | #50 (permalink) |
| Mycotopiate Join Date: Dec 1972
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I love it when people read the Bible! There can never be enough of that. But as far as mushrooms go, personally, I do not need any justification to use a God given gift, the mushroom. I believe that God speaks to us through His written word (The Bible) and that alone. He gave us things like mushrooms as an aid, just like any other medicine. |
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